User:Pasleim/uniquemerge/P494

Merge candidates based on same ICD-10 ID (P494) value.

Found 566 merge candiates, excluding 0 candidates from the whitelist leads to 566 remaining candidates.

Merge candidates

• A00-Z99: ICD-10 (Q45127), ICD-10 Online version (2010) (Q13610440)
• A00-Z99: ICD-10 (Q45127), ICD-10 German Modification (Q15944561)
• A00-Z99: ICD-10 (Q45127), ICD-10 Online version (2016) (Q58055610)
• A00-Z99: ICD-10 (Q45127), ICD-10 Australian Modification (Q62582057)
• A00-Z99: ICD-10 Online version (2010) (Q13610440), ICD-10 German Modification (Q15944561)
• A00-Z99: ICD-10 Online version (2010) (Q13610440), ICD-10 Online version (2016) (Q58055610)
• A00-Z99: ICD-10 Online version (2010) (Q13610440), ICD-10 Australian Modification (Q62582057)
• A00-Z99: ICD-10 German Modification (Q15944561), ICD-10 Online version (2016) (Q58055610)
• A00-Z99: ICD-10 German Modification (Q15944561), ICD-10 Australian Modification (Q62582057)
• A00-Z99: ICD-10 Online version (2016) (Q58055610), ICD-10 Australian Modification (Q62582057)
• A02: enteritis (Q854353), Salmonella food poisoning (Q18967963)
• A04.6: Yersinia enterocolitica (Q135177), Yersinia enterocolitica intestinal infectious disease (Q18967048)
• A04.7: enterocolitis (Q3055368), Clostridium difficile intestinal infectious disease (Q55011690)
• A15.5: bronchial tuberculosis (Q18928327), tracheal tuberculosis (Q18968227)
• A16.4: laryngeal tuberculosis (Q1737838), bronchial tuberculosis (Q18928327)
• A16.4: laryngeal tuberculosis (Q1737838), tracheal tuberculosis (Q18968227)
• A16.4: bronchial tuberculosis (Q18928327), tracheal tuberculosis (Q18968227)
• A16.7: Ghon's complex (Q2086658), primary tuberculosis (Q18966256)
• A18.2: tuberculous lymphadenitis (Q7850854), peripheral lymph node tuberculosis (Q19001246)
• A18.4: Erythema induratum (Q733616), cutaneous tuberculosis (Q12794230)
• A18.4: lupus vulgaris (Q3267710), cutaneous tuberculosis (Q12794230)
• A18.4: papulonecrotic tuberculid (Q3604586), cutaneous tuberculosis (Q12794230)
• A18.4: Lichen scrofulosorum (Q6543213), cutaneous tuberculosis (Q12794230)
• A18.4: Prosector's wart (Q7250563), cutaneous tuberculosis (Q12794230)
• A18.4: scrofuloderma (Q7439268), cutaneous tuberculosis (Q12794230)
• A18.4: Tuberculid (Q7850836), cutaneous tuberculosis (Q12794230)
• A18.4: Tuberculous gumma (Q7850852), cutaneous tuberculosis (Q12794230)
• A52.7: gummatous syphilis (Q2466723), muscle syphilis (Q18966733)
• A54.3: neonatal conjunctivitis (Q363988), gonococcal eye infectious disease (Q19001339)
• A54.4: Gonococcal arthritis (Q3624451), gonococcal spondylitis (Q18554441)
• A54.4: Gonococcal arthritis (Q3624451), gonococcal synovitis (Q18554520)
• A54.4: gonococcal spondylitis (Q18554441), gonococcal synovitis (Q18554520)
• A92.8: Mayaro virus disease (Q3073143), Bunyamwera virus (Q4997969)
• A92.8: Mayaro virus disease (Q3073143), Bwamba Fever (Q5861610)
• A92.8: Pogosta disease (Q4346007), Bunyamwera virus (Q4997969)
• A92.8: Pogosta disease (Q4346007), Bwamba Fever (Q5861610)
• A92.8: Bunyamwera virus (Q4997969), Bwamba Fever (Q5861610)
• A92.8: Bunyamwera virus (Q4997969), Spondweni fever (Q22350879)
• A92.8: Bwamba Fever (Q5861610), Spondweni fever (Q22350879)
• B02.3: ophthalmic zoster (Q2072712), herpes zoster keratoconjunctivitis (Q19001207)
• B08.8: Tanapox virus (Q7682310), Enterovirus infectious disease (Q19000403)
• B08.8: Yaba monkey tumor virus (Q8046343), Enterovirus infectious disease (Q19000403)
• B22.0: AIDS dementia complex (Q3435504), HIV encephalopathy (Q18967433)
• B30.3: acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (Q11491562), Enterovirus infectious disease (Q19000403)
• B46.0: mucormycosis (Q6931254), pulmonary mucormycosis (Q18924578)
• B74.1: Brugia malayi (Q139658), Brugia malayi filariasis (Q4097126)
• B74.2: Brugia timori (Q145730), Brugia malayi filariasis (Q4097126)
• B81.3: angiostrongyliasis (Q2558586), Angiostrongylus costaricensis infectious disease (Q55009411)
• C07: head and neck cancer (Q1783924), acinar cell carcinoma (Q4674172)
• C07: salivary gland neoplasm (Q3267772), acinar cell carcinoma (Q4674172)
• C40: osteosarcoma (Q549534), bone cancer (Q18554919)
• C40: osteoma (Q1675957), bone cancer (Q18554919)
• C40: giant-cell tumor of bone (Q1785791), bone cancer (Q18554919)
• C41: osteosarcoma (Q549534), bone cancer (Q18554919)
• C41: giant-cell tumor of bone (Q1785791), bone cancer (Q18554919)
• C71.0: hemispheric anaplastic astrocytoma (Q19000657), malignant neoplasm of cerebrum except lobes and ventricles (Q19001372)
• C72.0: spinal cord neoplasm (Q7577474), Spinal cord cancer (Q18556900)
• C75.1: Pituicytoma (Q7199535), acidophil carcinoma (Q19000435)
• C83.5: lymphoblastic lymphoma (Q6708247), precursor B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (Q56014449)
• C84: mature T-cell and NK-cell lymphoma (Q18553445), mature T-cell neoplasm (Q18966359)
• C84.5: primary cutaneous gamma/delta-positive T-cell lymphoma (Q55785735), systemic Epstein-Barr virus-positive T-cell lymphoproliferative disease of childhood (Q55787799)
• C84.5: primary cutaneous gamma/delta-positive T-cell lymphoma (Q55785735), hydroa vacciniforme-like lymphoma (Q55787800)
• C84.5: systemic Epstein-Barr virus-positive T-cell lymphoproliferative disease of childhood (Q55787799), hydroa vacciniforme-like lymphoma (Q55787800)
• C88: malignant immunoproliferative disease (Q4344990), immunoproliferative disorder (Q8578535)
• C92.0: therapy-related acute myeloid leukemia (Q53948161), acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22;q22) translocation (Q55785296)
• C92.0: therapy-related acute myeloid leukemia (Q53948161), acute myeloid leukemia with t(6;9)(p23;q34) (Q55788079)
• C92.0: therapy-related acute myeloid leukemia (Q53948161), acute myeloid leukemia with inv3(p21;q26.2) or t(3;3)(p21;q26.2) (Q55788081)
• C92.0: therapy-related acute myeloid leukemia (Q53948161), myeloid leukemia associated with Down Syndrome (Q102294516)
• C92.0: acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22;q22) translocation (Q55785296), acute myeloid leukemia with t(6;9)(p23;q34) (Q55788079)
• C92.0: acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22;q22) translocation (Q55785296), acute myeloid leukemia with inv3(p21;q26.2) or t(3;3)(p21;q26.2) (Q55788081)
• C92.0: acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22;q22) translocation (Q55785296), myeloid leukemia associated with Down Syndrome (Q102294516)
• C92.0: acute myeloid leukemia with t(6;9)(p23;q34) (Q55788079), acute myeloid leukemia with inv3(p21;q26.2) or t(3;3)(p21;q26.2) (Q55788081)
• C92.0: acute myeloid leukemia with t(6;9)(p23;q34) (Q55788079), myeloid leukemia associated with Down Syndrome (Q102294516)
• C92.0: acute myeloid leukemia with inv3(p21;q26.2) or t(3;3)(p21;q26.2) (Q55788081), myeloid leukemia associated with Down Syndrome (Q102294516)
• D04: Bowen's disease (Q979564), skin carcinoma in situ (Q18558001)
• D16: chondroblastoma (Q1076053), bone benign neoplasm (Q18553654)
• D16: chondroma (Q1076078), bone benign neoplasm (Q18553654)
• D16: osteochondroma (Q2035032), bone benign neoplasm (Q18553654)
• D16: odontoma (Q2520684), bone benign neoplasm (Q18553654)
• D16.5: cementoblastoma (Q189344), benign neoplasm of lower jaw bone (Q55789716)
• D16.5: ameloblastoma (Q461857), benign neoplasm of lower jaw bone (Q55789716)
• D16.5: Odontogenic myxoma (Q7077955), benign neoplasm of lower jaw bone (Q55789716)
• D17.5: angiomyxoma (Q3617384), lipoma of intra-abdominal organ (Q18966268)
• D23: trichofolliculoma (Q2452663), skin benign neoplasm (Q18555315)
• D23: Acanthoma fissuratum (Q4671978), skin benign neoplasm (Q18555315)
• D23: angiokeratoma of Mibelli (Q4763260), skin benign neoplasm (Q18555315)
• D23: Giant solitary trichoepithelioma (Q5558495), skin benign neoplasm (Q18555315)
• D23: Syringofibroadenoma (Q7663357), skin benign neoplasm (Q18555315)
• D23: Trichoadenoma (Q7840698), skin benign neoplasm (Q18555315)
• D23: Trichoblastoma (Q7840703), skin benign neoplasm (Q18555315)
• D23: Trichodiscoma (Q7840764), skin benign neoplasm (Q18555315)
• D27: germ cell tumor (Q1737977), ovarian benign neoplasm (Q18553671)
• D27: Meigs syndrome (Q1808930), ovarian benign neoplasm (Q18553671)
• D27: surface epithelial-stromal tumor (Q7645976), ovarian benign neoplasm (Q18553671)
• D47.1: myeloproliferative neoplasm (Q18555039), myeloid and lymphoid neoplasms associated with PDGFRA rearrangement (Q28024541)
• D47.1: myeloproliferative neoplasm (Q18555039), myeloid neoplasms associated with PDGFRB rearrangement (Q28024542)
• D47.1: myeloproliferative neoplasm (Q18555039), myeloid and lymphoid neoplasms associated with FGFR1 abnormalities (Q28024543)
• D47.1: myeloid and lymphoid neoplasms associated with PDGFRA rearrangement (Q28024541), myeloid neoplasms associated with PDGFRB rearrangement (Q28024542)
• D47.1: myeloid and lymphoid neoplasms associated with PDGFRA rearrangement (Q28024541), myeloid and lymphoid neoplasms associated with FGFR1 abnormalities (Q28024543)
• D47.1: myeloid neoplasms associated with PDGFRB rearrangement (Q28024542), myeloid and lymphoid neoplasms associated with FGFR1 abnormalities (Q28024543)
• D57.2: microdrepanocytic anemia (Q3856965), sickle-cell/Hb-C disease with crisis (Q18967387)
• D61.0: Hoyeraal-Hreidarsson syndrome (Q9390252), congenital bone marrow failure syndromes (Q98713408)
• D69.1: blood platelet disease (Q2429620), platelet storage pool deficiency (Q7202249)
• D72.0: Pelger-Huet anomaly (Q975182), genetic anomaly of leucocyte (Q19001365)
• D72.0: May–Hegglin anomaly (Q1914356), genetic anomaly of leucocyte (Q19001365)
• D81.6: Bare lymphocyte syndrome (Q3508735), MHC class I deficiency (Q18553590)
• E03.1: Kocher–Debre–Semelaigne syndrome (Q932899), hypothyroidism, congenital, nongoitrous (Q55762558)
• E04.1: thyroid nodule (Q53829), nontoxic uninodular goiter (Q18967868)
• E05.1: thyroid nodule (Q53829), thyrotoxicosis with toxic single thyroid nodule (Q19000960)
• E16.4: gastrinoma (Q786852), gastrin secretion abnormality (Q18554573)
• E22.2: syndrome of Inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (Q959457), nephrogenic syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis (Q55782451)
• E28: ovarian disease (Q7113244), ovarian dysfunction (Q18554691)
• E29.0: hypergonadism (Q1640929), hypersecretion of testicular hormones (Q18966914)
• E34.2: dwarfism (Q194101), ectopic hormone secretion syndrome associated with neoplasia (Q18975453)
• E34.2: dwarfism (Q194101), ectopic calcitonin production (Q19001097)
• E34.2: partial androgen insensitivity syndrome (Q2037224), ectopic hormone secretion syndrome associated with neoplasia (Q18975453)
• E34.2: partial androgen insensitivity syndrome (Q2037224), ectopic calcitonin production (Q19001097)
• E34.2: ectopic hormone secretion syndrome associated with neoplasia (Q18975453), ectopic calcitonin production (Q19001097)
• E72.1: hawkinsinuria (Q5685180), sulfuraminoacidemia (Q19001322)
• E72.1: hypermethioninemia (Q11668635), sulfuraminoacidemia (Q19001322)
• E74.3: trehalase deficiency (Q3043144), glucose-galactose malabsorption (Q5572341)
• E75.2: Alexander disease (Q567820), hypomyelinating leukoencephalopathy (Q21097782)
• E75.2: Farber lipogranulomatosis (Q1396345), hypomyelinating leukoencephalopathy (Q21097782)
• E75.2: leukodystrophy (Q1821559), hypomyelinating leukoencephalopathy (Q21097782)
• E75.2: Niemann–Pick disease, type C (Q2067267), hypomyelinating leukoencephalopathy (Q21097782)
• E75.2: Canavan disease (Q2349546), hypomyelinating leukoencephalopathy (Q21097782)
• E75.2: megalencephalic leukoencephalopathy with subcortical cysts (Q3237080), hypomyelinating leukoencephalopathy (Q21097782)
• E75.2: Niemann–Pick disease, SMPD1-associated (Q3281285), hypomyelinating leukoencephalopathy (Q21097782)
• E75.2: RAVINE syndrome (Q3508574), hypomyelinating leukoencephalopathy (Q21097782)
• E75.4: juvenile neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis (Q1753778), cerebral lipidosis (Q18553924)
• E75.4: Jansky–Bielschowsky disease (Q4354940), cerebral lipidosis (Q18553924)
• E77.8: sialuria (Q7506696), dystroglycanopathy (Q29014918)
• E83: mineral metabolism disease (Q18553032), Template:Inborn errors of metal metabolism (Q20350093)
• E83.0: occipital horn syndrome (Q3508729), copper metabolism disease (Q19001238)
• E83.4: hypermagnesemia (Q210697), disorder of magnesium metabolism (Q18966986)
• E83.4: Gitelman syndrome (Q1053120), disorder of magnesium metabolism (Q18966986)
• E83.4: hypomagnesemia (Q3771629), disorder of magnesium metabolism (Q18966986)
• E88.0: hypoalbuminemia (Q1640780), plasma protein metabolism disease (Q18555057)
• F00-F99: mental disorder (Q12135), ICD-10 Chapter V: Russian Adaption (Q57736497)
• F10: alcoholism (Q15326), alcohol-induced mental disorder (Q18555102)
• F10: drug withdrawal (Q498902), alcohol-induced mental disorder (Q18555102)
• F10: long-term effects of alcohol consumption (Q1340700), alcohol-induced mental disorder (Q18555102)
• F10: binge drinking (Q1521260), alcohol-induced mental disorder (Q18555102)
• F10: substance abuse (Q3184856), alcohol-induced mental disorder (Q18555102)
• F10: substance-related disorder (Q4134457), alcohol-induced mental disorder (Q18555102)
• F10: Disease theory of alcoholism (Q5282132), alcohol-induced mental disorder (Q18555102)
• F10: substance use disorder (Q7632070), alcohol-induced mental disorder (Q18555102)
• F10: alcohol and health (Q11290178), alcohol-induced mental disorder (Q18555102)
• F10.5: alcoholic hallucinosis (Q1040275), alcohol-induced psychotic disorder (Q4062514)
• F10.5: alcoholic hallucinosis (Q1040275), hallucinosis (Q4132712)
• F14: substance-related disorder (Q4134457), cocaine-related disorder (Q66124080)
• F14: substance use disorder (Q7632070), cocaine-related disorder (Q66124080)
• F20.5: residual schizophrenia (Q3208830), chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia (Q18967392)
• F22.8: delusional dysmorphophobia (Q4162341), querulous paranoia (Q25424564)
• F23.0: cycloid psychosis (Q245473), bouffée délirante (Q4949373)
• F23.1: cycloid psychosis (Q245473), bouffée délirante (Q4949373)
• F28: chronic hallucinatory psychosis (Q3410138), hallucinosis (Q4132712)
• F31.8: bipolar II disorder (Q4086956), recurrent manic episodes (Q19001125)
• F31.9: bipolar disorder not otherwise specified (Q3540858), major affective disorder 9 (Q55783899)
• F32.2: major depressive episode (Q6738337), single episode mild major depression (Q18968057)
• F40.2: AIDS phobia (Q293533), frigophobia (Q5504524)
• F40.2: acarophobia (Q2822642), frigophobia (Q5504524)
• F44.8: Ganser syndrome (Q911160), reactive confusion (Q18971674)
• F44.8: dissociative disorder not otherwise specified (Q2053759), reactive confusion (Q18971674)
• F44.8: reactive confusion (Q18971674), other specified dissociative disorder (Q104845432)
• F45.3: neurocirculatory asthenia (Q1757359), somatoform autonomic dysfunction (Q10673523)
• F45.3: bladder spasm (Q4923666), somatoform autonomic dysfunction (Q10673523)
• F45.8: false pregnancy (Q1065846), psychogenic dysmenorrhea (Q18967178)
• F45.8: globus pharyngis (Q3641768), psychogenic dysmenorrhea (Q18967178)
• F45.8: Ocular neurosis (Q7077142), psychogenic dysmenorrhea (Q18967178)
• F45.8: Ocular neurosis (Q7077142), somatoform disorder not otherwise specified (Q65116172)
• F45.8: Psychogenic pruritus (Q7256349), psychogenic dysmenorrhea (Q18967178)
• F45.8: Psychogenic pruritus (Q7256349), somatoform disorder not otherwise specified (Q65116172)
• F45.8: psychogenic dysmenorrhea (Q18967178), Template:Factitial dermatitis (Q20340706)
• F45.8: psychogenic dysmenorrhea (Q18967178), somatoform disorder not otherwise specified (Q65116172)
• F45.8: Template:Factitial dermatitis (Q20340706), somatoform disorder not otherwise specified (Q65116172)
• F52.2: female sexual arousal disorder (Q3241252), failure of genital response (Q9178700)
• F64.9: gender dysphoria (Q1049021), late-onset gender dysphoria (Q115170995)
• F70: IQ classificaton (Q5973340), mild intellectual disabilty (Q104249451)
• G03.0: aseptic meningitis (Q4804182), meningitis with clear cerebrospinal fluid (Q18967014)
• G11.1: cerebellar ataxia (Q154709), Nyssen-van Bogaert syndrome (Q29016141)
• G11.1: Machado-Joseph disease (Q3026441), Nyssen-van Bogaert syndrome (Q29016141)
• G12.1: Fazio-Londe disease (Q1399155), Spinal muscular atrophy with lower extremity predominance (Q7577467)
• G12.1: Fazio-Londe disease (Q1399155), juvenile spinal muscular atrophy (Q18554312)
• G12.1: Kennedy disease (Q1995327), Spinal muscular atrophy with lower extremity predominance (Q7577467)
• G12.1: Spinal muscular atrophy with lower extremity predominance (Q7577467), juvenile spinal muscular atrophy (Q18554312)
• G12.2: Bulbar palsy (Q2060353), infantile-onset ascending hereditary spastic paralysis (Q3363624)
• G12.2: infantile-onset ascending hereditary spastic paralysis (Q3363624), Congenital distal spinal muscular atrophy (Q5160420)
• G31.2: Alcoholic cerebral degeneration (Q9186667), alcohol-related brain damage (Q18205193)
• G40.0: benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes (Q488214), extratemporal epilepsy (Q18555113)
• G40.0: focal epilepsy (Q7140388), extratemporal epilepsy (Q18555113)
• G40.3: Lafora disease (Q163905), atypical absence seizure (Q3625581)
• G40.3: Lafora disease (Q163905), juvenile absence epilepsy (Q3726905)
• G40.3: Lafora disease (Q163905), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.3: tonic–clonic seizure (Q1406803), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.3: absence seizure (Q2346980), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.3: Unverricht-Lundborg syndrome (Q2356131), atypical absence seizure (Q3625581)
• G40.3: Unverricht-Lundborg syndrome (Q2356131), juvenile absence epilepsy (Q3726905)
• G40.3: Unverricht-Lundborg syndrome (Q2356131), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.3: atonic seizure (Q2895294), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.3: atypical absence seizure (Q3625581), benign familial infantile epilepsy (Q4887955)
• G40.3: atypical absence seizure (Q3625581), benign familial neonatal epilepsy (Q4887956)
• G40.3: atypical absence seizure (Q3625581), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.3: juvenile absence epilepsy (Q3726905), benign familial infantile epilepsy (Q4887955)
• G40.3: juvenile absence epilepsy (Q3726905), benign familial neonatal epilepsy (Q4887956)
• G40.3: juvenile absence epilepsy (Q3726905), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.3: benign familial infantile epilepsy (Q4887955), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.3: benign familial neonatal epilepsy (Q4887956), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.4: Ohtahara syndrome (Q649602), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.4: West syndrome (Q1041258), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.4: Lennox-Gastaut sindrome (Q1544884), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.4: generalized epilepsy (Q5532415), generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992)
• G40.4: generalized convulsive epilepsy (Q19000992), CDKL5 deficiency disorder (Q40739448)
• G45.9: papazole (Q4344611), brain ischemia (Q4862390)
• G47: agrypnia excitata (Q397554), Template:Sleep (Q13548500)
• G47.0: agrypnia excitata (Q397554), Sleep state misperception (Q7539766)
• G47.4: cataplexy (Q944473), narcolepsy-cataplexy syndrome (Q56026918)
• G47.4: narcolepsy-cataplexy syndrome (Q56026918), soul wandering (Q61722402)
• G58.0: intercostal neuralgia (Q1665961), abdominal cutaneous nerve entrapment syndrome (Q19765925)
• G60: hereditary and idiopathic peripheral neuropathy (Q18966444), idiopathic neuropathy (Q18966452)
• G71.8: muscular atrophy (Q2844600), myofibrillar myopathy (Q23893414)
• G71.8: X-linked myopathy with excessive autophagy (Q3456637), inclusion body myopathy with Paget disease of bone and frontotemporal dementia (Q3508770)
• G71.8: X-linked myopathy with excessive autophagy (Q3456637), myofibrillar myopathy (Q23893414)
• G71.8: inclusion body myopathy with Paget disease of bone and frontotemporal dementia (Q3508770), Brody myopathy (Q4973199)
• G71.8: inclusion body myopathy with Paget disease of bone and frontotemporal dementia (Q3508770), myofibrillar myopathy (Q23893414)
• G90: dysautonomia (Q620639), autonomic nervous system disease (Q18554088)
• G90: Template:Autonomic diseases (Q6705455), autonomic nervous system disease (Q18554088)
• G95.1: haematomyelia (Q4135134), vascular myelopathy (Q17232521)
• H02.0: entropion (Q1327273), entropion and trichiasis of eyelid (Q55011598)
• H02.0: trichiasis (Q1852755), entropion and trichiasis of eyelid (Q55011598)
• H04.6: lacrimal fistula (Q3073060), Nasolacrimal duct cyst (Q6967228)
• H11.4: chemosis (Q1069623), Conjunctival vascular disorder and cysts (Q18967193)
• H21.1: rubeosis iridis (Q3297012), iris and ciliary body vascular disorder (Q18966831)
• H21.2: progressive iris atrophy (Q18966604), Iris and ciliary body degeneration (Q18966606)
• H21.2: progressive iris atrophy (Q18966604), Iridoschisis (Q18966607)
• H21.2: Iris and ciliary body degeneration (Q18966606), Iridoschisis (Q18966607)
• H21.3: Pars plana exudative cyst (Q18967376), Cysts of iris, ciliary body and anterior chamber (Q18975213)
• H21.5: Synechia (Q1811947), adhesions and disruptions of iris and ciliary body (Q18971606)
• H21.5: Iridodialysis (Q5927780), adhesions and disruptions of iris and ciliary body (Q18971606)
• H31.3: choroidal rupture (Q18966497), choroidal hemorrhage and rupture (Q19000874)
• H40.5: phacogenic glaucoma (Q18554346), glaucoma associated with ocular disorder (Q18966647)
• H44.0: endophthalmitis (Q1294912), vitreous abscess (Q18558200)
• H44.5: phthisis bulbi (Q906264), blind hypertensive eye (Q18554170)
• H53.1: visual disturbance (Q2266426), hemeralopia (Q7757581)
• H53.1: visual disturbance (Q2266426), Subjective visual disturbances (Q18469333)
• H53.1: scintillating scotoma (Q2637106), Subjective visual disturbances (Q18469333)
• H53.4: hemianopia (Q363342), heteronymous hemianopsia (Q26263172)
• H53.4: quadrantanopia (Q2121869), heteronymous hemianopsia (Q26263172)
• H53.4: bitemporal hemianopsia (Q2351027), heteronymous hemianopsia (Q26263172)
• H53.4: binasal hemianopsia (Q4086828), heteronymous hemianopsia (Q26263172)
• H53.4: anopsia (Q4770152), heteronymous hemianopsia (Q26263172)
• H65: Acute necrotizing otitis media (Q3887113), non-suppurative otitis media (Q18554024)
• H74.1: adhesions of drum head to incus (Q18967364), adhesive middle ear disease (Q30349512)
• H74.3: necrosis of ear ossicle (Q18554172), impaired mobility of ear ossicles except malleus (Q18968231)
• H90.5: genetic deafness (Q3505181), nonsyndromic deafness (Q9079046)
• H90.5: genetic deafness (Q3505181), nerve deafness (Q18967037)
• H90.5: nonsyndromic deafness (Q9079046), nerve deafness (Q18967037)
• I28.0: arteriovenous fistula (Q707837), pulmonary arteriovenous malformations (Q52775754)
• I51.7: ventricular hypertrophy (Q945225), dilated cardiac chambers (Q16644209)
• I51.7: cardiomegaly (Q1729124), dilated cardiac chambers (Q16644209)
• I62: Q3724761, silent stroke (Q7514772)
• I73.8: acroparesthesia (Q420915), arterial tortuosity syndrome (Q4216194)
• I73.8: acroparesthesia (Q420915), Erythrocyanosis crurum (Q5396458)
• I73.8: vascular disease of the extremities (Q2823517), arterial tortuosity syndrome (Q4216194)
• I73.8: vascular disease of the extremities (Q2823517), papazole (Q4344611)
• I73.8: vascular disease of the extremities (Q2823517), Erythrocyanosis crurum (Q5396458)
• I73.8: arterial tortuosity syndrome (Q4216194), papazole (Q4344611)
• I73.8: papazole (Q4344611), Erythrocyanosis crurum (Q5396458)
• I74: dextran-40 (Q4393309), arterial embolism (Q4797533)
• I80: venous thrombosis (Q2751330), dextran-40 (Q4393309)
• J10: lower respiratory tract infection (Q3631290), cytovir-3 (Q4063637)
• J12.2: human parainfluenza (Q2051533), parainfluenzal pneumonia (Q18967920)
• J34.0: Nasal septal abscess (Q6966584), ulceration of nasal septum (Q21117237)
• J99.0: Caplan's syndrome (Q1034736), rheumatic pneumonia (Q18968046)
• J99.0: rheumatoid lung disease (Q7320486), rheumatic pneumonia (Q18968046)
• K00: tooth development disorder (Q1189914), mouth disease (Q2508462)
• K00: tooth development disorder (Q1189914), tooth pathology (Q5259414)
• K05.2: pericoronitis (Q946882), acute pericementitis (Q18553859)
• K09.0: odontogenic keratocyst (Q1739194), Developmental odontogenic cyst (Q2695170)
• K09.0: Developmental odontogenic cyst (Q2695170), dentigerous cyst (Q5259492)
• K12.0: Bednar's aphthae (Q4879312), Sutton's disease (Q105761414)
• K13.0: cheilosis (Q1068994), plasma cell cheilitis (Q7201764)
• K13.0: cheilitis exfoliativa (Q1343695), plasma cell cheilitis (Q7201764)
• K52.2: allergic gastroenteritis and colitis (Q19001199), gastrointestinal allergy (Q23037750)
• K52.9: Q4073320, inflammatory diarrhea (Q18553211)
• K72.0: cytolytic hepatitis (Q3009535), ischemic hepatitis (Q6079228)
• K72.9: liver failure (Q970208), hepatic insufficiency (Q68663705)
• K76.8: hepatic cyst (Q1811141), alpha-methylacyl-CoA racemase deficiency (Q27164415)
• K85: dextran-40 (Q4393309), Pancreatic abscess (Q7130401)
• K92.2: stomach bleeding (Q1883970), enterorrhagia (Q3726289)
• K92.2: upper gastrointestinal bleeding (Q3144956), enterorrhagia (Q3726289)
• L02: carbuncle (Q959922), skin abscess (Q25448621)
• L20: hand eczema (Q1574795), histaglobulin (Q4138997)
• L50.8: Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (Q1140452), chronic urticaria (Q3886240)
• L50.8: aquagenic urticaria (Q1676835), chronic urticaria (Q3886240)
• L57.1: chronic actinic dermatitis (Q3023830), actinic reticuloid (Q19001179)
• L60.3: Trachyonychia (Q1115833), onychorrhexis (Q7095163)
• L67.1: poliosis (Q567852), hair discoloration (Q21120094)
• L87: Iodinolum (Q4205884), Cutaneous perforating disorders (Q5196708)
• L92.8: obsolete lipogranuloma (Q1827377), Kimura disease (Q2069545)
• L92.8: obsolete lipogranuloma (Q1827377), Granuloma multiforme (Q5596830)
• L92.8: obsolete lipogranuloma (Q1827377), Silica granuloma (Q7514911)
• L95.0: Atrophic spots of skin (Q757761), cutis marmorata telangiectatica congenita (Q1997180)
• M19: cervical osteoarthritis (Q2946952), Q3966966
• M20.1: hallux valgus (Q852574), acquired hallux varus (Q55012028)
• M25.5: arthralgia (Q683498), Kapsikam (Q4213226)
• M25.5: arthralgia (Q683498), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• M25.5: Lysine acetylsalicylate (Q4073307), Kapsikam (Q4213226)
• M25.5: Lysine acetylsalicylate (Q4073307), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• M25.5: Kapsikam (Q4213226), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• M54: spondyloarthropathy (Q52848), Nicoflex (Q4321182)
• M60: Kapsikam (Q4213226), soft tissue disorder (Q7554046)
• M61: myositis ossificans (Q3858675), Muscle calcification and ossification (Q19000943)
• M62.0: diastasis recti (Q638370), muscle diastasis (Q67501487)
• M65: tenosynovitis (Q1505689), synovitis and tenosynovitis (Q55013011)
• M67.9: tendinopathy (Q1682583), synovial, tendon or bursa disorder (Q18967087)
• M67.9: tendinopathy (Q1682583), tendon sheath disorder (Q55790819)
• M67.9: synovial, tendon or bursa disorder (Q18967087), tendon sheath disorder (Q55790819)
• M79.1: myalgia (Q474959), Kapsikam (Q4213226)
• M79.1: myalgia (Q474959), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• M79.1: Lysine acetylsalicylate (Q4073307), Kapsikam (Q4213226)
• M79.1: Lysine acetylsalicylate (Q4073307), Nicoflex (Q4321182)
• M79.1: Lysine acetylsalicylate (Q4073307), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• M79.1: Kapsikam (Q4213226), Nicoflex (Q4321182)
• M79.1: Kapsikam (Q4213226), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• M79.1: Nicoflex (Q4321182), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• M79.2: neuralgia (Q1136940), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• M79.2: neuritis (Q2307256), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• M79.2: Lysine acetylsalicylate (Q4073307), Nicoflex (Q4321182)
• M79.2: Lysine acetylsalicylate (Q4073307), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• M79.2: Nicoflex (Q4321182), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• M84.0: abnormal kyphosis (Q478389), malunited fracture (Q54943948)
• N17.1: shock kidney (Q2248460), acute renal failure with lesion of renal cortical necrosis (Q55011627)
• N17.2: kidney papillary necrosis (Q7312498), acute renal failure with lesion of renal medullary necrosis (Q19001355)
• N28.0: renal infarction (Q1989256), Brewer infarcts (Q4962669)
• N30.0: acute cystitis (Q11491567), acute hemorrhagic cystitis (Q21109048)
• N32.8: Hinman syndrome (Q1619419), bladder spasm (Q4923666)
• N50.8: ejaculatory duct obstruction (Q1445498), chylocele of tunica vaginalis (Q18553950)
• N53.1: retrograde ejaculation (Q1759920), ejaculatory dysfunction (Q47528917)
• N83.8: Masters-Allen syndrome (Q3508670), paraovarian cyst (Q7135604)
• N93.0: contact bleeding (Q1783079), postcoital bleeding (Q48834766)
• N95: menopause (Q177708), menopausal and postmenopausal disorder (Q18966395)
• N95: menstrual disorder (Q2137327), menopausal and postmenopausal disorder (Q18966395)
• N95.1: climacteric (Q603557), menopausal syndrome (Q19000777)
• N95.1: climacteric (Q603557), symptomatic menopausal or female climacteric state (Q55011412)
• N95.1: menopausal syndrome (Q19000777), symptomatic menopausal or female climacteric state (Q55011412)
• O00-O9A: Template:Pathology of pregnancy, childbirth, and the puerperium (Q10977656), complication of pregnancy, childbirth and the puerperium (Q18975815)
• O21.1: hyperemesis gravidarum (Q391556), hyperemesis gravidarum with metabolic disturbance (Q18967306)
• O26.6: acute fatty liver of pregnancy (Q4677929), liver disease of pregnancy (Q19709227)
• O43.1: Velamentous cord insertion (Q490081), malformation of placenta (Q19000952)
• O43.1: circumvallate placenta (Q5121779), malformation of placenta (Q19000952)
• O60: obstetric labor complication (Q7075540), premature labor (Q18966545)
• O62.2: uterine atony (Q1418513), abnormality of forces of labor (Q19001123)
• O64.3: Q2350366, brow presentation (Q3409114)
• O64.9: malpresentation of fetus (Q1309355), Vasa previa complicating labor and delivery, delivered (Q18966305)
• O69.4: vasa praevia (Q1899576), Benckiser's hemorrhage (Q3144951)
• O92.0: inverted nipple (Q1720711), Retracted nipple associated with childbirth (Q19001384)
• O92.1: Cracked nipple (Q2558350), Fissure of nipple associated with childbirth (Q18966466)
• O92.1: Fissure of the nipple (Q5455245), Fissure of nipple associated with childbirth (Q18966466)
• P02.5: umbilical cord knot (Q1961966), umbilical cord compression (Q7881314)
• P59.2: Neonatal hepatitis (Q6993479), perinatal jaundice due to hepatocellular damage (Q18554086)
• P83.2: hydrops fetalis (Q1679678), idiopathic hydrops fetalis (Q18966849)
• Q10.3: ablepharon (Q322370), eyelid malformation (Q55789157)
• Q10.3: distichia (Q1229478), eyelid malformation (Q55789157)
• Q10.3: epiblepharon (Q3726816), eyelid malformation (Q55789157)
• Q10.3: Pseudostrabismus (Q3924930), eyelid malformation (Q55789157)
• Q18: Template:Congenital malformations and deformations of face and neck (Q7646753), rare head and neck malformation (Q55785495)
• Q25.2: interrupted aortic arch (Q6056643), aorta atresia (Q18554664)
• Q25.4: diverticulum of Kommerell (Q1240396), Neuhauser anomaly (Q2852239)
• Q25.4: diverticulum of Kommerell (Q1240396), Aneurysm of sinus of Valsalva (Q4761767)
• Q25.4: Overriding aorta (Q2142075), Neuhauser anomaly (Q2852239)
• Q25.4: Neuhauser anomaly (Q2852239), vascular ring (Q3616597)
• Q25.4: Neuhauser anomaly (Q2852239), Aneurysm of sinus of Valsalva (Q4761767)
• Q27.8: aberrant subclavian artery (Q446822), glomangiomatosis (Q18557402)
• Q32.1: tracheal stenosis (Q4116448), tracheal anomaly (Q55785517)
• Q43.9: small intestine congenital defect (Q3281910), intestinal malformation (Q55789041)
• Q65.8: coxa valga (Q955454), hip dysplasia, Beukes type (Q3042140)
• Q66.8: hammer toe (Q602477), Q18420277
• Q66.8: Q18420277, bipartite talus (Q19309810)
• Q74.0: cubitus valgus (Q1142962), macrodactylia of fingers (Q18966921)
• Q74.0: Madelung's deformity (Q1456924), macrodactylia of fingers (Q18966921)
• Q74.0: Sprengel's deformity (Q1850576), macrodactylia of fingers (Q18966921)
• Q74.0: Hapnes Boman Skeie syndrome (Q5652132), macrodactylia of fingers (Q18966921)
• Q74.8: Reunion Island's Larsen syndrome (Q3508571), acheiropody (Q4673593)
• Q74.8: Reunion Island's Larsen syndrome (Q3508571), Femur fibula ulna syndrome (Q5442945)
• Q74.8: Reunion Island's Larsen syndrome (Q3508571), Trevor's disease (Q7839508)
• Q74.8: Reunion Island's Larsen syndrome (Q3508571), calcaneonavicular coalition (Q18554815)
• Q74.8: acheiropody (Q4673593), calcaneonavicular coalition (Q18554815)
• Q74.8: Femur fibula ulna syndrome (Q5442945), calcaneonavicular coalition (Q18554815)
• Q74.8: Trevor's disease (Q7839508), calcaneonavicular coalition (Q18554815)
• Q75.8: Binder syndrome (Q4913982), Moeschler-Clarren Syndrome (Q29014901)
• Q75.8: Platybasia (Q7202556), Moeschler-Clarren Syndrome (Q29014901)
• Q76: extra rib (Q3695365), spondylocostal dysostosis (Q4821698)
• Q76.0: Rachischisis (Q4391109), spina bifida occulta (Q21505502)
• Q76.4: congenital vertebral anomaly (Q332343), platyspondylia (Q11819500)
• Q76.4: congenital vertebral anomaly (Q332343), congenital kyphosis (Q18975984)
• Q76.4: congenital vertebral anomaly (Q332343), vertebral cleft (Q22965581)
• Q76.4: abnormal kyphosis (Q478389), congenital kyphosis (Q18975984)
• Q76.4: caudal regression syndrome (Q1129947), congenital kyphosis (Q18975984)
• Q76.4: abnormal spinal curvature (Q7577456), platyspondylia (Q11819500)
• Q76.4: abnormal spinal curvature (Q7577456), congenital kyphosis (Q18975984)
• Q76.4: abnormal spinal curvature (Q7577456), vertebral cleft (Q22965581)
• Q76.4: platyspondylia (Q11819500), congenital kyphosis (Q18975984)
• Q76.4: congenital kyphosis (Q18975984), vertebral cleft (Q22965581)
• Q77.7: dyssegmental dysplasia (Q3335661), anauxetic dysplasia 1 (Q18553372)
• Q77.7: otospondylomegaepiphyseal dysplasia (Q7109017), anauxetic dysplasia 1 (Q18553372)
• Q77.7: spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita (Q7578960), anauxetic dysplasia 1 (Q18553372)
• Q78.8: omodysplasia (Q3352097), Diaphanospondylodysostosis (Q22672486)
• Q78.8: Diaphanospondylodysostosis (Q22672486), mesomelic dwarfism-cleft palate-camptodactyly syndrome (Q22965561)
• Q78.8: Diaphanospondylodysostosis (Q22672486), Dysosteosclerosis (Q29014957)
• Q78.8: Diaphanospondylodysostosis (Q22672486), acryocystitis-osteopoikilosis syndrome (Q29014964)
• Q82.4: Böök syndrome (Q1020201), tooth and nail syndrome (Q7824262)
• Q82.5: port-wine stain (Q1409611), verrucous nevus (Q3346781)
• Q82.5: verrucous nevus (Q3346781), Apocrine nevus (Q4780134)
• Q82.5: verrucous nevus (Q3346781), Eccrine nevus (Q5332316)
• Q82.5: verrucous nevus (Q3346781), Linear verrucous epidermal nevus (Q6553537)
• Q82.5: verrucous nevus (Q3346781), Nevus comedonicus (Q7005032)
• Q82.5: verrucous nevus (Q3346781), Woolly hair nevus (Q8033871)
• Q82.8: skin tag (Q3179593), punctate palmoplantar keratoderma (Q7260026)
• Q82.8: acrokeratosis verruciformis (Q4675784), Unna–Thost disease (Q16539538)
• Q82.8: Haim–Munk syndrome (Q5639341), Unna–Thost disease (Q16539538)
• Q82.8: punctate palmoplantar keratoderma (Q7260026), Unna–Thost disease (Q16539538)
• Q82.8: punctate palmoplantar keratoderma (Q7260026), Hereditary sclerosing poikiloderma (Q16937928)
• Q82.8: Schöpf–Schulz–Passarge syndrome (Q7433355), Unna–Thost disease (Q16539538)
• Q82.8: stiff skin syndrome (Q7616403), Unna–Thost disease (Q16539538)
• Q82.8: Vohwinkel syndrome (Q7939442), Unna–Thost disease (Q16539538)
• Q83: Template:Congenital malformations and deformations of breast (Q7646744), breast malformation (Q12778860)
• Q84.1: uncombable hair syndrome (Q541852), isolated genetic hair shaft abnormality (Q55788586)
• Q84.1: hair diseases (Q2989168), isolated genetic hair shaft abnormality (Q55788586)
• Q84.1: Pili annulati (Q7193987), isolated genetic hair shaft abnormality (Q55788586)
• Q84.1: pili torti (Q7193994), isolated genetic hair shaft abnormality (Q55788586)
• Q84.2: hair diseases (Q2989168), hair anomaly (Q55788585)
• Q84.3: anonychia (Q4770022), anonychia congenita (Q22443772)
• Q87.0: Antley-Bixler syndrome (Q585011), cyclocéphalians (Q16545395)
• Q87.0: acrocephalosyndactylia (Q1786496), cyclocéphalians (Q16545395)
• Q87.0: otopalatodigital syndrome type 1 (Q3508782), Asymmetric crying facies (Q4812072)
• Q87.0: otopalatodigital syndrome type 1 (Q3508782), first arch syndrome (Q5454124)
• Q87.0: cold-induced sweating syndrome (Q3961672), Asymmetric crying facies (Q4812072)
• Q87.0: cold-induced sweating syndrome (Q3961672), first arch syndrome (Q5454124)
• Q87.0: cold-induced sweating syndrome (Q3961672), cyclocéphalians (Q16545395)
• Q87.0: Asymmetric crying facies (Q4812072), cyclocéphalians (Q16545395)
• Q87.0: Asymmetric crying facies (Q4812072), Macrosomia-microphthalmia-cleft palate syndrome (Q29014923)
• Q87.0: first arch syndrome (Q5454124), cyclocéphalians (Q16545395)
• Q87.0: first arch syndrome (Q5454124), Macrosomia-microphthalmia-cleft palate syndrome (Q29014923)
• Q87.0: Marshall syndrome (Q6773846), cyclocéphalians (Q16545395)
• Q87.0: cyclocéphalians (Q16545395), Macrosomia-microphthalmia-cleft palate syndrome (Q29014923)
• Q87.8: Townes-Brocks syndrome (Q385774), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: Townes-Brocks syndrome (Q385774), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: Alström syndrome (Q432814), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: Coffin-Lowry syndrome (Q1106881), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: DOOR syndrome (Q1154764), isomérism (Q3155580)
• Q87.8: DOOR syndrome (Q1154764), fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619)
• Q87.8: DOOR syndrome (Q1154764), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: DOOR syndrome (Q1154764), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: Alport syndrome (Q1331116), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: oculo-facial-cardio-dental syndrome (Q1530812), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: oculo-facial-cardio-dental syndrome (Q1530812), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: Johanson-Blizzard syndrome (Q1699007), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: Johanson-Blizzard syndrome (Q1699007), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: Char syndrome (Q2411095), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: congenital cataracts, facial dysmorphism, and neuropathy (Q2941671), Bohring-Opitz syndrome (Q4938225)
• Q87.8: congenital cataracts, facial dysmorphism, and neuropathy (Q2941671), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: congenital cataracts, facial dysmorphism, and neuropathy (Q2941671), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: isomérism (Q3155580), De Barsy syndrome (Q3961699)
• Q87.8: isomérism (Q3155580), Bohring-Opitz syndrome (Q4938225)
• Q87.8: isomérism (Q3155580), cerebroretinal microangiopathy with calcifications and cysts (Q5064109)
• Q87.8: isomérism (Q3155580), Floating-Harbor syndrome (Q5459852)
• Q87.8: isomérism (Q3155580), Zimmermann–Laband syndrome (Q8072143)
• Q87.8: isomérism (Q3155580), MURCS association (Q9161215)
• Q87.8: isomérism (Q3155580), LADD syndrome (Q18553246)
• Q87.8: isomérism (Q3155580), Thomas syndrome (Q29014976)
• Q87.8: isomérism (Q3155580), cerebro-costo-mandibular syndrome (Q29033216)
• Q87.8: isomérism (Q3155580), Temtamy syndrome (Q54366503)
• Q87.8: isomérism (Q3155580), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: isomérism (Q3155580), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: CHILD syndrome (Q3508568), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619), De Barsy syndrome (Q3961699)
• Q87.8: fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619), Bohring-Opitz syndrome (Q4938225)
• Q87.8: fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619), cerebroretinal microangiopathy with calcifications and cysts (Q5064109)
• Q87.8: fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619), Floating-Harbor syndrome (Q5459852)
• Q87.8: fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619), Zimmermann–Laband syndrome (Q8072143)
• Q87.8: fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619), MURCS association (Q9161215)
• Q87.8: fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619), LADD syndrome (Q18553246)
• Q87.8: fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619), Thomas syndrome (Q29014976)
• Q87.8: fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619), cerebro-costo-mandibular syndrome (Q29033216)
• Q87.8: fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619), Temtamy syndrome (Q54366503)
• Q87.8: fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: fallot complex - intellectual disability - growth delay (Q3508619), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: Fryns syndrome (Q3508635), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: Fryns syndrome (Q3508635), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: McKusick–Kaufman syndrome (Q3508674), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: trichorhinophalangeal syndrome type II (Q3508795), Thomas syndrome (Q29014976)
• Q87.8: trichorhinophalangeal syndrome type II (Q3508795), Temtamy syndrome (Q54366503)
• Q87.8: trichorhinophalangeal syndrome type II (Q3508795), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: trichorhinophalangeal syndrome type II (Q3508795), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: Laurence-Moon syndrome (Q3961678), LADD syndrome (Q18553246)
• Q87.8: Laurence-Moon syndrome (Q3961678), Thomas syndrome (Q29014976)
• Q87.8: Laurence-Moon syndrome (Q3961678), Temtamy syndrome (Q54366503)
• Q87.8: Laurence-Moon syndrome (Q3961678), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: De Barsy syndrome (Q3961699), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: De Barsy syndrome (Q3961699), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: Bohring-Opitz syndrome (Q4938225), Thomas syndrome (Q29014976)
• Q87.8: Bohring-Opitz syndrome (Q4938225), Temtamy syndrome (Q54366503)
• Q87.8: Bohring-Opitz syndrome (Q4938225), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: Bohring-Opitz syndrome (Q4938225), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: cerebroretinal microangiopathy with calcifications and cysts (Q5064109), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: cerebroretinal microangiopathy with calcifications and cysts (Q5064109), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: Floating-Harbor syndrome (Q5459852), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: Floating-Harbor syndrome (Q5459852), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: Zimmermann–Laband syndrome (Q8072143), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: MURCS association (Q9161215), Thomas syndrome (Q29014976)
• Q87.8: MURCS association (Q9161215), Temtamy syndrome (Q54366503)
• Q87.8: MURCS association (Q9161215), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: MURCS association (Q9161215), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: LADD syndrome (Q18553246), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: LADD syndrome (Q18553246), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: Thomas syndrome (Q29014976), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: Thomas syndrome (Q29014976), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: cerebro-costo-mandibular syndrome (Q29033216), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: cerebro-costo-mandibular syndrome (Q29033216), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: Temtamy syndrome (Q54366503), Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267)
• Q87.8: Temtamy syndrome (Q54366503), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q87.8: Nicolaides-Baraitser Syndrome (Q95449267), Chung–Jansen syndrome (Q117472178)
• Q97: trisomy (Q844903), X chromosome number anomaly with female phenotype (Q55786714)
• Q97: trisomy (Q844903), Polysomy of X chromosome (Q55786716)
• Q97: tetrasomy (Q906664), X chromosome number anomaly with female phenotype (Q55786714)
• Q97: tetrasomy (Q906664), Polysomy of X chromosome (Q55786716)
• Q97: X chromosome number anomaly with female phenotype (Q55786714), Polysomy of X chromosome (Q55786716)
• R01.1: bruit (Q3491504), undiagnosed cardiac murmur (Q102186879)
• R01.1: carotid bruit (Q5045540), undiagnosed cardiac murmur (Q102186879)
• R07.2: Precordial catch syndrome (Q3408834), precordial pain (Q21120264)
• R10.4: abdominal cramps (Q3002092), papazole (Q4344611)
• R19.5: fecal occult blood test (Q2488276), abnormal feces (Q102186990)
• R23.1: livedo reticularis (Q2003151), clammy skin (Q22314624)
• R23.1: pallor (Q2336398), clammy skin (Q22314624)
• R23.1: livedo (Q6658154), clammy skin (Q22314624)
• R23.3: petechia (Q1412657), spontaneous ecchymoses (Q102187046)
• R23.4: Induration (Q1661911), change in skin texture (Q102187302)
• R23.4: desquamation (Q2738617), change in skin texture (Q102187302)
• R25.3: fasciculation (Q1397878), twitching (Q21117302)
• R30.9: algiuria (Q1806356), urinary burning (Q21109236)
• R30–R39: urological symptom (Q2565950), Template:Urinary system symptoms and signs (Q10739186)
• R51: headache (Q86), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• R51: occipital neuralgia (Q3347239), Tempalgin (Q4454517)
• R58: dextran-40 (Q4393309), retroperitoneal hemorrhage (Q7317047)
• R60.0: leg edema (Q2367992), peripheral edema (Q7168709)
• R63.3: feeding difficulties and mismanagement (Q102187035), feeding difficulties (Q110917143)
• R71: poikilocytosis (Q2100708), abnormality of red blood cells (Q5670888)
• S27.3: pulmonary laceration (Q7259533), pulmonary injury (Q7259546)
• S52.0: Monteggia fracture (Q1946035), fracture of upper end of ulna (Q111363113)
• T14.1: wound (Q184753), lizard bite (Q6660546)
• T14.1: insect-inflicted wound (Q368779), lizard bite (Q6660546)
• T14.1: animal bite (Q866650), lizard bite (Q6660546)
• T14.1: gunshot wound (Q2140674), lizard bite (Q6660546)
• T14.1: spider bite (Q2549274), lizard bite (Q6660546)
• T14.1: lizard bite (Q6660546), penetrating trauma (Q7162621)
• T14.3: strain (Q576145), Nicoflex (Q4321182)
• T40.2: opioid overdose (Q17154378), fentanyl toxicity (Q21504884)
• T52: huffing (Q2248357), toxic effect of organic solvents (Q3508749)
• T62.0: mushroom poisoning (Q852186), gyromitrin syndrome (Q3961701)
• T63.2: scorpion sting (Q3400924), scorpion envenomation (Q55788313)
• T74.1: battered child syndrome (Q1914737), battered woman syndrome (Q4869729)
• T78.4: histaglobulin (Q4138997), alpha-gal allergy (Q16242785)
• T80.8: iatrogenic pleural effusion (Q1662685), Transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (Q3774208)
• T80.8: iatrogenic pleural effusion (Q1662685), transfusion hemosiderosis (Q7834208)
• Z01.2: Tempalgin (Q4454517), Dental examination (Q15853215)